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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 27.06.2025 00:01

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

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There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Do people really never face any hidden costs or surprises with surgeries in countries with single-payer healthcare like the NHS?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Sit deserunt in iusto aut praesentium fugiat fugit.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.